Muslims often make the point that Christian Arabs also refer to God as "Allah" (including in this thread) as a way to refute the claim that Allah is an idol, or pagan deity, but they do not mention the fact that these Christians call Jesus "Yasu'a" instead of "Isa/Eesa", that is, the Judaized Antichrist of the Qur'an. This shift in spelling is inexplicable except when we consider that Eesa (عيسى,
'aeesa) is the biblical Esau (عيسو,
'aeeso), the brother of Jacob (called Israel).
This claim is not a novel one, nor is it one that only non-Muslims make: the Islamic prophet of the modern age, Ahmed Deedat, confirms this in his book
"Christ in Islam" (ch. 2). He claims that "[Jesus'] proper name was
Eesa (Arabic), or
Esau (Hebrew); classical
Yeheshua, which the Christian nations of the West latinised as Jesus." His reasoning as to why the Hebrew name of Jesus is Esau is completely foolish, but he nonetheless confirms this Judaic belief.
In the rabbinic mythology, Esau is believed to represent the eternal enemy of the Jews, generally this means the Gentiles, but particularly it means Jesus Christ. Johann Eisenmenger (d. 1704) in his book "Rabbinical Literature, or, the Traditions of the Jews, Vol. II" wrote: "it is said that the soul of Esau passed into Christ; and that we, who believe in him, and whom they therefore call Esau and Edomites, are no better." Islam also teaches some kind of transmigration of souls or likenesses when it comes to Jesus' crucifixion. In the Qur'an, in Sura 4, Ayah 157 we read: "That they said (in boast), "We killed Christ Jesus the son of Mary, the Messenger of Allah";- but they killed him not, nor crucified him, but so it was made to appear to them, and those who differ therein are full of doubts..."
The
Tafseer of Ibn Abbas offers the following explanation for this confusion: "Allah wanted to kill their man Tatianos" so he made him look like Jesus and this is who the Jews crucified instead. But this only raises more questions, such as: Who in the world is Tatianos? And why did Allah want to kill him? Or why did he not kill "their man" by other means and instead fomented this grand deception? Also, how did Allah make the switch? It is not for nothing that another verse referring to this event (Sura 3, Ayah 54) says that "Allah deceived them". The verb used there is
مكر (makar) which translates to "cunning, wiliness, deceit, guile", but which Muslims falsely translate as "Allah planned" to minimize the insidious nature of the Judeo-Islamic god.
Furthermore, Islam's ties to rabbinism in its early history is firmly established by the evidence. Muhammad had a "pact" with the Jews of the Banu Qurayzah which they eventually violated, prompting Muhammad to effectively massacre the whole tribe. The Qur'an itself has references to Talmudic traditions such as in Qur'an 5:31-32, Qur'an 21:51-70 (Abraham smashing the idols), and Qur'an 28:76. In fact, one of the earliest historical sources referencing Muhammad and his religion explicitly discusses this relationship in some detail. In
Sebeos the Priest's "A History of Heraclius", he says the following:
As the comment on Wikipedia states: "This section describes how
Mahmed first established a community comprising Ishmaelites and Jews based on their common descent from Abraham; the Arabs via Ishmael, and the Jews via Isaac." For context, you can read about the
Jewish revolt against Heraclius which lead to their exile and subsequent cajoling of the pagan Arabs to work towards their "Zionist" ambitions. This was quite effective as it resulted in the capture of Jerusalem and the building of the Dome on the Rock a few decades after Sebeos wrote his account.
TL;DR - The Islamic counterfeit docetic Jesus called Eesa is in fact Esau, the brother of Jacob, who in rabbinic literature represents the enemies of the Jews and is associated by them with the real Jesus of the Gospels. Esau being the name for Jesus is confirmed by Ahmed Deedat.
en.wikipedia.org
